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Discussion Starter · #1 ·
OK - In the everton-villa fa cup game, there was suspicion of a hand ball penalty claim after an everton goal attempt was cleared off the line by a villa player who obviously used his hand. Everton scored immediately off the rebound, so the ref didn't have to make the call.

My question is, why not?

If it was a hand ball, it should have been a red card.

Regardless of whether the ref plays the advantage or not, shouldn't the card be issued anyway? You see refs issuing cards after advantages are played all the time. For some reason, if a goal is scored this doesn't happen.
 

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Discussion Starter · #6 ·
PeeJay said:
If the referee plays the advantage the game continues.
If he deems the foul card-worthy he can give the card as soon
as the ball is out of play. So if I'm playing against United and I
punch Nani in the head but the ball falls to Ronaldo who scores
then it's a goal and then he gives me a red card.

Imagine it's a corner with the whole opposing team in our box,
we regain the ball and counterattack and one of their players goes
to ours, who stayed in the box, and kicks him in the eye, the ref
won't stop the match because one of our players has the ball
and is playing (unless the guy who god kicked in the eye needs
medical treatment) so he'd wait for the ball to go out of play and
then pull out the red card.
Right. So if the ref saw it - and the commentators on Setanta were pretty sure he did - it should have been a red card.
 
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